after reporting to Trading Standards a case, where I was charged significantly more for an item than the price displayed in a supermarket, I was informed that the seller is not legally bound to sell an item at the price displayed, and can charge what they like.

Surely that is an unfair advantage to the seller and opens the floodgates for unscrupulous trading?

If this relates to an outdated law to do with making a contract then it needs repealing – especially in our present difficult economic times.

If not, does this mean the law is on the side of the wealthiest and the man in the street can be treated unfairly?

Adrian Taylor, Thames court, Eynsham